6. As software project manager for XYZ Company, the government of Ghana has awarded you a contract to develop software for all Junior High Schools. There is pressure on the government to deliver, so which development model will be appropriate to meet the demand of this project within the shortest possible time?
A. Incremental
B. Waterfall
C. Prototype
D. Spiral
A. Incremental.

7. What defines the Incremental development model in software development?

A. It involves a step-by-step process where all requirements are gathered at the beginning.

B. It combines elements of the Waterfall model with iterative development.

C. It focuses on delivering a complete system at the end of the development cycle.

D. It requires all software components to be developed simultaneously.

Answer: B

8. What is a key advantage of the Waterfall model in software development?

A. Flexibility to accommodate changing requirements.

B. Early and continuous delivery of working software.

C. Clear and well-defined stages of development.

D. High adaptability to changing project scopes.

Answer: C

3. How does the Prototype model differ from the Incremental model in software development?

A. Prototype focuses on iterative development, while Incremental involves creating a full system incrementally.

B. Prototype involves fully developing and delivering the software in one go.

C. Incremental focuses on creating rough versions of the software for user feedback.

D. Prototype and Incremental models are essentially the same in their approach.
Answer: A

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9. What characterizes the Spiral model in software development?

A. It involves development in repeated cycles, each adding more features.

B. It focuses on completing each stage before moving on to the next.

C. It requires all requirements to be gathered and documented upfront.

D. It is a linear model with no room for iteration.

Answer: A

10. In what scenario would the Spiral model be most beneficial in software development?

A. When requirements are well understood from the beginning.

B. When there is a need for rapid development with user feedback at various stages.

C. When the project has a fixed budget and timeline.

D. When strict control over each stage of development is necessary.

Answer: B

11. Differentiate between the CIDR notation /27 on a Class B and Class C IP address in relation to hosts numbers?
A. The Class B has more hosts than the Class C per subnet
B. The Class C has more hosts than the Class B per subnet
C. The Class B and Class C have equal number of hosts per subnet
D. None of the above is true about the Class B and Class C subnet hosts
The correct answer is c

12. What does CIDR stand for in networking and IP addressing?

A. Central Internet Data Routing

B. Classless Inter-Domain Routing

C. Controlled Internet Data Requests

D. Complete Internet DNS Resolution

Answer: B

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13. How many host bits are there in a /27 subnet?

A. 32

B. 128

C. 64

D. 32, minus the subnet bits

Answer: C

14. In CIDR notation, what does the “/27” represent in terms of subnetting?

A. The number of subnets available

B. The subnet mask represented in binary

C. The total number of IPs available in the subnet

D. The number of bits in the subnet mask

Answer: D

15. How many host addresses are generally available in a Class B network with a /27 CIDR notation?

A. 32

B. 510

C. 30

D. 64

Answer: B

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16. Which of the following best describes the relationship between the CIDR notation and the number of available host addresses in a subnet?

A. As the CIDR notation value increases, the number of available host addresses decreases.

B. The CIDR notation has no direct correlation with the number of host addresses in a subnet.

C. Higher CIDR notation values indicate a larger number of available host addresses in a subnet.

D. Lower CIDR notation values indicate more available host addresses in a subnet.

Answer: D

17. As the database administrator, management invited you to provide them with all the details of all employees in the organization. Assuming you have records in a table named EMPLOYEE in your database, which of the following SQL statements will you use to retrieve ALL the records in the EMPLOYEE TABLE in your database?
A. SELECT ALL FROM EMPLOYEE
B. SELECT *FROM EMPLOYEE
C. SELECT ALL FROM EMPLOYEE DATABASE
D. SELECT * FROM EMPLOYEE TABLE

18. What does the ‘*’ symbol represent in an SQL query when used in the SELECT clause?
A. It specifies to select all columns from a table
B. It is an operator that multiplies two columns together
C. It indicates a wildcard character for string matching
D. It denotes the column to order results by
Answer: A

19. Which SQL statement should you use to retrieve only distinct (unique) values in a column named ‘City’ from a table named ‘CUSTOMERS’?
A. SELECT DISTINCT City FROM CUSTOMERS
B. SELECT UNIQUE City FROM CUSTOMERS
C. SELECT City FROM CUSTOMERS WHERE UNIQUE
D. SELECT City FROM CUSTOMERS DISTINCT
Answer: A

20. What is the purpose of the WHERE clause in an SQL query?
A. To specify the tables being queried
B. To order the results of a query
C. To filter rows based on specified criteria
D. To join multiple tables in a query
Answer: C

21. Which SQL statement is used to update data in a table?
A. ALTER TABLE
B. MODIFY ROW
C. UPDATE TABLE
D. UPDATE
Answer: D

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22. In SQL, which statement is used to add a new row of data into a table?
A. INSERT INTO
B. ADD ROW
C. ADD NEW ROW
D. ADD RECORD
Answer: A

23. What does the ADDIE model stand for in instructional design?

A. Analyze, Develop, Design, Implement, Evaluate

B. Assess, Develop, Design, Integrate, Evaluate

C. Analyze, Design, Develop, Implement, Evaluate

D. Assess, Direct, Develop, Implement, Enhance

Answer: C

24. During which phase of the ADDIE model are learning objectives typically defined and established?

A. Analysis

B. Design

C. Development

D. Implementation

Answer: B

25. In the context of the ADDIE model, what is the key focus of the Analysis phase?

A. Development of the final product

B. Assessment of the learners and their needs

C. Evaluation of the effectiveness of the instruction

D. Creation of the learning materials

Answer: B

26. Which stage of the ADDIE model involves creating the actual instructional materials and testing them?

A. Analysis

B. Design

C. Development

D. Implementation

Answer: C

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27. What is the primary goal of the Implementation phase in the ADDIE model?

A. Conducting a detailed analysis of the learners

B. Designing the instructional materials and strategies

C. Rolling out the materials to the target audience

D. Assessing the effectiveness of the instruction

Answer: C

28. In designing materials for a Science class, the teacher wrote the learning outcomes for a Structure of an atom lesson and selected the media. The teacher also worked on the specifications for the prototype. These steps describe which stage of the ADDIE model?
A. Analysis
B. Design
C. Development
D. Implementation

29. What should you do if you notice any suspicious individuals loitering around the ATM before your transaction?
A. Proceed with your transaction as usual
B. Ask them for help in using the ATM
C. Cancel your transaction and leave the area
D. Offer to help them with their transaction
Answer: C

30. What is the recommended action if someone is standing too close behind you while you are using the ATM?
A. Politely ask them to maintain a safe distance
B. Ignore their presence and continue with the transaction
C. Complete the transaction and leave the area immediately
D. Offer to help them with their transaction
Answer: A

31. What should you do with your pin and receipt received from the ATM after completing your transaction?
A. Leave them behind at the ATM for disposal
B. Safely keep them in your wallet or purse
C. Throw them in the trash bin near the ATM
D. Display them openly on your way out
Answer: B

32. In case of any trouble or suspicious activity at the ATM, what emergency service number should you call?
A. 911
B. 999
C. 112
D. 123
Answer: A

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33. What is a good habit to prevent potential theft from shoulder surfers at ATMs?
A. Covering the keypad with your hand while entering your pin
B. Asking others to enter your pin for you
C. Sharing your pin with other ATM users
D. Writing your pin on the back of the card
Answer: A

34. What is the safest location to use an ATM?
A. In a crowded area with high foot traffic.
B. In a secluded alleyway with minimal visibility.
C. In a quiet location away from public view.
D. In a dimly lit area with no surveillance cameras.
Answer: A. In a crowded area with high foot traffic.

35. What should you do if you notice any suspicious activity around the ATM?
A. Ignore it and proceed with your transaction.
B. Report it to the nearest authority or call emergency services.
C. Engage in conversation with the suspicious individuals.
D. Confront the individuals directly.
Answer: B. Report it to the nearest authority or call emergency services.

36. After completing your transaction at the ATM, what should you do with your receipt?
A. Throw it in the nearest trash bin.
B. Keep it in your wallet for future reference.
C. Leave it at the ATM for the next person to use.
D. Take it with you and dispose of it securely later.
Answer: D. Take it with you and dispose of it securely later.

37. What should you do if someone tries to engage you in conversation while you’re using the ATM?
A. Politely respond and continue with your transaction.
B. Ignore them completely.
C. Leave the ATM immediately and find another one.
D. Engage in conversation and share personal information.
Answer: C. Leave the ATM immediately and find another one.

38. How should you protect your PIN at the ATM?
A. Write it down on a piece of paper and keep it in your wallet.
B. Cover the keypad with your hand while entering your PIN.
C. Share it with a trusted friend or family member.
D. Memorize it but don’t worry about covering the keypad.
Answer: B. Cover the keypad with your hand while entering your PIN.

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39. What is the primary purpose of personal grounding when working with electronic components?
A. To increase the risk of ESD damage
B. To generate static electricity
C. To safely discharge any accumulated static charge
D. To prevent the components from functioning properly
Answer: C

40. Why is using conductive surfaces for component placement beneficial in ESD protection?
A. They insulate components from ESD
B. They increase the risk of ESD damage
C. They help dissipate any static charge from the components
D. They attract static electricity
Answer: C

41. What is the importance of generating friction through hand movements in an ESD-sensitive environment?
A. It reduces the risk of ESD damage
B. It increases the risk of static buildup
C. It dissipates any static charge on the components
D. It enhances the performance of electronic components
Answer: B

42. Why is opting for insulative storage solutions like plastic bags not recommended for ESD-sensitive components?
A. They help reduce the risk of ESD damage
B. They attract static electricity
C. They dissipate any static charge
D. They can trap and hold static charges, leading to potential damage
Answer: D

43. Which step should be taken before handling sensitive electronic components to minimize ESD risks?
A. Stand on an insulative surface
B. Ensure personal grounding
C. Wear gloves made of conductive material
D. Generate static electricity through clothing
Answer: B

44. In an ICT lab, you are assigned the task of handling electronic equipment, including sensitive components that are susceptible to electrostatic discharge (ESD) damage. Among the following precautions, which one is essential to minimize the risk of ESD damage when working with these components?
A. Ensure personal grounding before interaction
B. Utilize conductive surfaces for component placement
C. Generate friction through hand movements
D. Opt for insulative storage solutions like plastic bags

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45. As a network administrator, you notice that the company’s network performance has been degrading over time due to increased traffic. Which of the following strategies would be the most effective in addressing this issue while allowing for future growth?
A. Upgrading the network infrastructure to support higher speeds and implementing Quality of Service (QoS) policies
B. Requesting users to reduce their internet usage during peak hours
C. Replacing network switches with higher-capacity hubs
D. Adding more Wi-Fi access points without considering the underlying network infrastructure
The answer is A

46. What is Quality of Service (QoS) in networking and why is it beneficial for addressing network performance issues?
A. QoS prioritizes network security over performance
B. QoS can enhance network performance by prioritizing specific types of traffic
C. QoS limits network speed to conserve resources
D. QoS only affects wired connections, not wireless
Answer: B

47. Why might requesting users to reduce their internet usage during peak hours be less effective in addressing network performance issues in a growing organization?
A. It promotes employee productivity
B. It only resolves short-term congestion issues
C. It helps conserve internet resources
D. It is a common practice in the industry
Answer: B

48. What effect would replacing network switches with higher-capacity hubs have on network performance and growth potential?
A. Increase network speed and capacity
B. Decrease network speed and capacity
C. Have no impact on network performance
D. Increase network speed without affecting capacity
Answer: A

49. What role do Wi-Fi access points play in network performance, and why might adding more access points without considering the underlying infrastructure not be effective?
A. Access points regulate data traffic on the network
B. Adding more access points can lead to interference and network congestion
C. Access points are irrelevant for network performance
D. More access points always lead to better network performance
Answer: B

50. How does upgrading the network infrastructure to support higher speeds contribute to future growth and scalability?
A. It allows for faster internet browsing for users
B. It ensures the network can handle increased traffic and data volumes
C. It reduces the need for QoS policies
D. It limits the number of connected devices on the network
Answer: B

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